ADA Diabetes Care Guideline Quiz

Which type of diabetes is caused by autoimmune β-cell destruction?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Monogenic diabetes syndromes

Which type of diabetes is diagnosed in the second or third trimester of pregnancy?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Monogenic diabetes syndromes

What are the hallmark symptoms of type 1 diabetes in children?

A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome
C. Exocrine pancreatic diseases
D. Glucocorticoid use

What does LADA stand for?

A. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes of Adolescence
B. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes of Adulthood
C. Longitudinal Autoimmune Diabetes of Adulthood
D. Limited Autoimmune Diabetes of Adolescence

Which type of diabetes is typically associated with insulin resistance and metabolic syndrome?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Monogenic diabetes syndromes

Which of the following is NOT a general category of diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Hypertensive diabetes

Which diagnostic test requires no caloric intake for at least 8 hours before testing?

A. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG)
B. 2-h Plasma Glucose (2-h PG) during OGTT
C. A1C test
D. Random Plasma Glucose

What is the A1C diagnostic threshold for diabetes?

A. ≥5.5% (37 mmol/mol)
B. ≥6.0% (42 mmol/mol)
C. ≥6.5% (48 mmol/mol)
D. ≥7.0% (53 mmol/mol)

What does LADA stand for?

A. Late Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults
B. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adolescents
C. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes of Adulthood
D. Limited Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults

Which diagnostic test for diabetes should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is NGSP certified and standardized to the DCCT assay?

A. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG)
B. 2-h Plasma Glucose (2-h PG) during OGTT
C. A1C test
D. Random Plasma Glucose

Which test should be performed to diagnose diabetes in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia?

A. Fasting plasma glucose
B. 2-h plasma glucose during OGTT
C. A1C
D. Random plasma glucose

What is the A1C diagnostic threshold for diabetes?

A. ≥5.5% (37 mmol/mol)
B. ≥6.0% (42 mmol/mol)
C. ≥6.5% (48 mmol/mol)
D. ≥7.0% (53 mmol/mol)

In which conditions should only plasma blood glucose criteria be used to diagnose diabetes?

A. Hemodialysis
B. Pregnancy (second and third trimesters)
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. All of the above

Which factor may cause African American individuals to have lower A1C levels for a given level of mean glycemia?

A. Sickle cell trait
B. X-linked glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase G202A
C. Hemodialysis
D. Recent blood loss or transfusion

How many grams of carbohydrates should a person consume daily for at least 3 days prior to oral glucose tolerance testing?

A. 100 g
B. 150 g
C. 200 g
D. 250 g

At what age should screening for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes begin for all people?

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 40 years

Which of the following tests is NOT appropriate for screening for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes?

A. Fasting plasma glucose
B. 2-h plasma glucose during 75-g oral glucose tolerance test
C. A1C
D. Random blood glucose

What is the minimum recommended interval for repeat screening if the initial tests for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes are normal?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

What is the recommended carbohydrate intake before an oral glucose tolerance test for diabetes screening?

A. At least 100 g/day
B. At least 120 g/day
C. At least 150 g/day
D. At least 180 g/day

When should risk-based screening for prediabetes and/or type 2 diabetes be considered in children and adolescents with overweight or obesity?

A. After the onset of puberty
B. After 10 years of age
C. After 12 years of age
D. Both A and B, whichever occurs earlier

What is the definition of prediabetes?

A. Fasting plasma glucose levels from 100 to 125 mg/dL
B. A1C levels of 5.7–6.4% (39–47 mmol/mol)
C. 2-h plasma glucose levels during 75-g oral glucose tolerance test from 140 to 199 mg/dL
D. All of the above

At what age should screening for diabetes begin for all people?

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 40 years

How often should people with prediabetes be tested for diabetes?

A. Every 6 months
B. Yearly
C. Every 2 years
D. Every 3 years

What is the ADA Diabetes Risk Test used for?

A. To determine the severity of diabetes
B. To assess the effectiveness of treatment
C. To determine the appropriateness of screening for diabetes or prediabetes in asymptomatic adults
D. To diagnose diabetes

Which condition is associated with insulin resistance and could be a risk factor for prediabetes?

A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Anemia

What percentage of all diabetes cases is represented by Type 2 diabetes?

A. 50-60%
B. 70-80%
C. 90-95%
D. 98-99%

Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes?

A. Physical activity
B. Age
C. Low body weight
D. Low genetic predisposition

What is a common characteristic of people with type 2 diabetes concerning insulin levels?

A. Absence of insulin production
B. Extremely high insulin levels
C. Normal or elevated insulin levels
D. Extremely low insulin levels

Which of the following is least likely to occur spontaneously in individuals with type 2 diabetes?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Insulin resistance
D. Weight gain

Which racial/ethnic subgroups have a higher prevalence of type 2 diabetes?

A. Caucasian and Middle Eastern
B. African American, Native American, Hispanic/Latino, and Asian American
C. Australian Aboriginal and Pacific Islander
D. Scandinavian and Eastern European

At what age should testing for diabetes begin for all people?

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 40 years

What BMI cut point is suggested for defining increased risk in Asian American individuals?

A. 18.5 kg/m2
B. 23 kg/m2
C. 25 kg/m2
D. 30 kg/m2

Which of the following medications is known to increase the risk of diabetes?

A. Glucocorticoids
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Some HIV medications
D. All of the above

What is the recommended screening interval for diabetes in high-risk individuals?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Why is community screening for diabetes generally not recommended?

A. It is too expensive
B. People with positive tests may not seek or have access to appropriate follow-up care
C. It is not effective in identifying people at risk
D. It cannot be performed outside a health care setting

At what age should annual screening for cystic fibrosis–related diabetes begin?

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years

Which test is NOT recommended as a screening test for cystic fibrosis–related diabetes?

A. Oral glucose tolerance test
B. A1C test
C. Continuous glucose monitoring
D. Both B and C

What is the primary treatment for people with cystic fibrosis–related diabetes?

A. Oral hypoglycemic agents
B. Insulin
C. Diet modification
D. Exercise

When should annual monitoring for complications of cystic fibrosis–related diabetes begin?

A. Immediately after diagnosis
B. 3 years after diagnosis
C. 5 years after diagnosis
D. 10 years after diagnosis

What is the primary rationale for using insulin in people with cystic fibrosis–related diabetes?

A. To lower blood glucose levels
B. To induce an anabolic state and promote weight gain
C. To improve lung function
D. To reduce inflammation

After organ transplantation, what should be screened for?

A. Hypertension
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Electrolyte imbalance

Which test is preferred to diagnose posttransplantation diabetes mellitus?

A. Fasting glucose test
B. A1C test
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Insulin sensitivity test

What is the primary treatment for hyperglycemia in patients after organ transplantation?

A. Metformin
B. Thiazolidinediones
C. Insulin therapy
D. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors

Which factor is NOT a risk factor for posttransplantation diabetes mellitus?

A. Age
B. Family history of diabetes
C. Immunoglobulin levels
D. Use of immunosuppressant agents

What is a common complication in transplant patients that may require drug dose adjustments?

A. Increased glomerular filtration rate
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Increased liver enzyme levels
D. Electrolyte imbalance

At what age should individuals diagnosed with diabetes undergo genetic testing for neonatal diabetes?

A. In the first 6 months of life
B. In the first year of life
C. In the first 2 years of life
D. At any age

Which type of diabetes is characterized by onset of hyperglycemia at an early age and autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
D. Neonatal diabetes

Which gene mutation is the most common cause of permanent neonatal diabetes?

A. KCNJ11
B. ABCC8
C. INS
D. EIF2B1

What is the preferred treatment for individuals with GCK-MODY?

A. Antihyperglycemic therapy
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Insulin
D. No specific treatment except during pregnancy

What is the first-line therapy for individuals with HNF1A- or HNF4A-MODY?

A. Metformin
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Insulin
D. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors

What is the main reason for correctly diagnosing monogenic diabetes?

A. To ensure a proper diet
B. To prevent the development of other diseases
C. To avoid suboptimal or harmful treatment plans
D. To reduce healthcare costs

What can a biomarker screening pathway, such as the combination of urinary C-peptide/creatinine ratio and antibody screening, aid in?

A. Determining who should get genetic testing for MODY
B. Diagnosing type 2 diabetes
C. Monitoring blood glucose levels
D. Identifying individuals with pancreatic diabetes

What is a distinguishing feature of postpancreatitis diabetes mellitus (PPDM)?

A. Presence of type 1 diabetes-associated autoimmunity
B. Concurrent pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
C. Stable, mild fasting hyperglycemia
D. Obesity

What term is used to describe hyperglycemia due to general pancreatic dysfunction?

A. Type 3c diabetes
B. Type 4 diabetes
C. Pancreatic diabetes
D. Pancreoprivic diabetes

What is the primary cause of diabetes in the context of disease of the exocrine pancreas?

A. Genetic disorders
B. Structural and functional loss of insulin secretion
C. Autoimmune destruction of β-cells
D. Insulin resistance

What is the recommended screening period for gestational diabetes mellitus in pregnant individuals who have not been previously diagnosed with diabetes or high-risk abnormal glucose metabolism?

A. Before 15 weeks of gestation
B. 18-22 weeks of gestation
C. 24-28 weeks of gestation
D. 30-34 weeks of gestation

When should individuals with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus be screened for prediabetes or diabetes postpartum?

A. Immediately after delivery
B. 2-6 weeks postpartum
C. 4-12 weeks postpartum
D. 6 months postpartum

How often should individuals with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus be screened for the development of diabetes or prediabetes?

A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 3 years
D. Every 5 years

What should individuals with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus and diagnosed with prediabetes receive to prevent diabetes?

A. Insulin therapy
B. Intensive lifestyle interventions and/or metformin
C. Oral glucose-lowering agents
D. No specific treatment

Which of the following tests can be used for early abnormal glucose metabolism screening during pregnancy?

A. Fasting glucose
B. A1C
C. 75-g oral glucose tolerance test
D. Both A and B

When should pregnant individuals be screened for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) if they have not been previously diagnosed with diabetes or high-risk abnormal glucose metabolism?

A. Before 15 weeks of gestation
B. 10-14 weeks of gestation
C. 24-28 weeks of gestation
D. 32-36 weeks of gestation

What are the two strategies for diagnosing gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

A. One-step 75-g OGTT and two-step 50-g GLT
B. Two-step 75-g OGTT and three-step 100-g OGTT
C. One-step 75-g OGTT and two-step 50-g GLT followed by 100-g OGTT
D. Two-step 50-g GLT and three-step 100-g GLT

At which plasma glucose values is the diagnosis of GDM made using the one-step 75-g OGTT strategy?

A. Fasting: 92 mg/dL, 1 h: 180 mg/dL, 2 h: 153 mg/dL
B. Fasting: 100 mg/dL, 1 h: 190 mg/dL, 2 h: 160 mg/dL
C. Fasting: 110 mg/dL, 1 h: 200 mg/dL, 2 h: 170 mg/dL
D. Fasting: 90 mg/dL, 1 h: 150 mg/dL, 2 h: 120 mg/dL

What is the prevalence of prediabetes in people of reproductive age (20-44 years) according to NHANES data?

A. 10.5%
B. 21.5%
C. 15.0%
D. 30.0%

What is the main difference between the one-step and two-step strategies for diagnosing GDM?

A. The one-step strategy uses a 75-g OGTT, while the two-step strategy uses a 50-g GLT followed by a 100-g OGTT.
B. The one-step strategy uses a fasting plasma glucose test, while the two-step strategy uses an A1C test.
C. The one-step strategy focuses on maternal hyperglycemia, while the two-step strategy focuses on fetal hyperglycemia.
D. The one-step strategy uses a glucose challenge test, while the two-step strategy uses an oral glucose tolerance test.

What are the main mediators of childhood body fat associated with maternal hyperglycemia during pregnancy according to HAPO FUS data?

A. Neonatal adiposity and fetal hyperglycemia
B. Neonatal adiposity and fetal hyperinsulinemia
C. Fetal hyperglycemia and maternal obesity
D. Maternal obesity and neonatal adiposity

Which of the following is NOT a recommended site for insulin injection?

A. Abdomen
B. Thigh
C. Lower leg
D. Upper arm

What is the main reason for the importance of injection site rotation in insulin therapy?

A. To avoid infections
B. To avoid lipohypertrophy
C. To improve insulin absorption
D. To prevent insulin resistance

What is the main advantage of using short needles (e.g., 4-mm pen needles) for insulin injection?

A. Faster insulin absorption
B. Reduced risk of intramuscular injection
C. Improved insulin efficacy
D. Prevention of lipohypertrophy

What is the main effect of pramlintide when used as an adjunct to insulin treatment in adults with type 1 diabetes?

A. Significant reduction in A1C
B. Modest reduction in A1C and modest weight loss
C. Increased insulin sensitivity
D. Reduced risk of diabetic ketoacidosis

Which medication should be continued upon initiation of insulin therapy for ongoing glycemic and metabolic benefits in type 2 diabetes patients?

A. Metformin
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor
C. Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist
D. Sulfonylureas

When should the early introduction of insulin be considered in type 2 diabetes treatment?

A. When A1C levels are slightly above target
B. In case of weight gain
C. When blood glucose levels are very high or symptoms of hyperglycemia are present
D. In patients with low cardiovascular risk

In adults with type 2 diabetes, which is preferred over insulin when possible?

A. Metformin
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor
C. Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist
D. Sulfonylureas

What should be reevaluated at regular intervals (every 3-6 months) in type 2 diabetes patients?

A. Medication regimen and medication-taking behavior
B. Exercise routine
C. Dietary habits
D. Social support system

Which agent should be continued upon initiation of insulin therapy for ongoing glycemic and metabolic benefits?

A. Metformin
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor
C. Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist
D. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor

In adults with type 2 diabetes, which is preferred over insulin when possible?

A. Metformin
B. Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor
C. Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonist
D. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor

What should be considered in the glucose-lowering management of type 2 diabetes?

A. Healthy lifestyle behaviors
B. Diabetes self-management education and support
C. Avoidance of clinical inertia
D. All of the above

When should the early introduction of insulin be considered?

A. Evidence of ongoing catabolism (weight loss)
B. Symptoms of hyperglycemia are present
C. A1C levels are >10% (86 mmol/mol) or blood glucose levels are ≥300 mg/dL (16.7 mmol/L)
D. All of the above